Quant Memo
Core

Unlevering and Relevering Beta

A listed company's beta measures the risk of its business and its borrowing mixed together. Stripping the debt out gives a clean business risk you can average across peers, then bolt back on at whatever capital structure you actually care about.

Prerequisites: The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), Weighted Average Cost of Capital

You are valuing a private packaging business. It has no share price, so it has no beta, so CAPM has nothing to chew on. The obvious move is to borrow a beta from listed packaging companies. The obvious move is also wrong as stated, because the beta you can look up on a screen is not measuring what you want.

Think about what a levered equity actually is. Two firms own identical factories making identical boxes. One is debt-free; the other funded half its assets with a loan. When box demand drops 10%, both firms' assets lose the same value. But the levered firm's lenders are owed a fixed amount regardless, so the entire loss lands on a much smaller equity base. Same business, twice the swing in the share price. A regression of that share price against the index will report a higher beta — and none of the difference is about boxes.

So an observed levered (equity) beta is a mixture: the risk of the business, amplified by however much debt happens to sit on that particular company's balance sheet. Unlevering removes the amplifier. Relevering re-applies it at the leverage you have in mind.

The formula

The standard relationship is the Hamada equation:

βL=βU[1+(1t)DE].\beta_L = \beta_U \left[ 1 + (1 - t)\frac{D}{E} \right].

βL\beta_L is the levered beta you observe, βU\beta_U the unlevered or asset beta — the beta the firm would have with no debt — tt the marginal tax rate, and D/ED/E the ratio of debt to equity at market values. In words: leverage multiplies business risk by a factor bigger than one, and the tax shield takes a little of the sting out because the government absorbs tt of every interest payment. Run it backwards to unlever:

βU=βL1+(1t)D/E.\beta_U = \frac{\beta_L}{1 + (1 - t)\,D/E}.
1.19

0.94 0.70 0.46

0 0.35 1.0 market D/E levered beta

Each sloping line is one business, labelled with its asset beta. Moving right along a line changes only the funding; jumping between lines changes what the company actually does. Unlevering tells you which line a comp sits on; relevering slides along that line to your target 0.35, giving 1.19.

Worked example: building a beta from comparables

Three listed packaging peers, with betas from a five-year monthly regression against a broad index, debt and equity at market value, and a 25% marginal tax rate.

CompLevered βMarket D/EUnlevered β
A1.300.501.30 / (1 + 0.75 × 0.50) = 0.945
B1.050.201.05 / (1 + 0.75 × 0.20) = 0.913
C1.620.901.62 / (1 + 0.75 × 0.90) = 0.967

The raw betas span 1.05 to 1.62 — a 54% range that would swing a valuation wildly. Unlevered, they collapse to 0.913–0.967. That tightening is the whole point: it says these three really are the same business, and the spread was funding, not fundamentals.

Take the mean, βU=0.942\beta_U = 0.942, and relever to the target structure for the private firm, D/E=0.35D/E = 0.35:

βL=0.942×(1+0.75×0.35)=0.942×1.2625=1.189.\beta_L = 0.942 \times (1 + 0.75 \times 0.35) = 0.942 \times 1.2625 = 1.189.

With a risk-free rate of 4.2% and an equity risk premium of 5.0%, the cost of equity is 4.2+1.189×5.0=10.15%4.2 + 1.189 \times 5.0 = 10.15\%. Finish the job: D/E=0.35D/E = 0.35 means D/V=0.35/1.35=25.9%D/V = 0.35/1.35 = 25.9\%, and at a pre-tax cost of debt of 5.5%,

WACC=0.741×10.15%+0.259×5.5%×0.75=8.59%.\text{WACC} = 0.741 \times 10.15\% + 0.259 \times 5.5\% \times 0.75 = 8.59\%.

The D/ED/E you relever with and the weights you use in WACC must be the same capital structure. Relevering to a 35% target and then weighting WACC with today's actual 60% debt is internally inconsistent, and it is the mistake that shows up most often in modelling tests.

Refinements you will be asked about

Debt beta. Hamada assumes debt is riskless, βD=0\beta_D = 0. Fine for an investment-grade borrower; not fine for Comp C at 0.9× leverage. The general form is βU=[βL+βD(1t)D/E]/[1+(1t)D/E]\beta_U = [\beta_L + \beta_D(1-t)D/E] \,/\, [1 + (1-t)D/E]. Give Comp C a debt beta of 0.10 and its unlevered beta rises from 0.967 to 1.008 — you had been giving away risk that lenders were actually bearing.

Which leverage policy. The (1t)(1-t) term embeds Myers' assumption of fixed debt. If instead the company rebalances to a constant debt ratio, the tax shield carries business risk and the Harris–Pringle version drops the tax term entirely: βU=βL/(1+D/E)\beta_U = \beta_L / (1 + D/E). Sponsors modelling an APV with a fixed amortisation schedule use the first; a corporate with a published target ratio fits the second.

Regression hygiene. Conventions differ and the answer moves with them: five years of monthly returns against a local index (Damodaran, Value Line) versus two years of weekly (Bloomberg's default). Monthly data reduces the non-synchronous-trading bias that drags illiquid small caps' betas down; weekly data reacts faster to a genuine change in the business. Raw betas are noisy enough that most providers apply a Blume adjustment toward 1.0 before you ever see them — check whether your screen is showing you raw or adjusted, because unlevering an already-shrunk beta double-counts the correction.

Use market values of debt and equity, never book. A distressed firm with book equity of 500 and market equity of 80 has a book D/ED/E of 1.2 and a market D/ED/E of 7.5; unlevering with the book figure hands you an asset beta that is far too high, which you then relever and use to justify a discount rate nobody would recognise.

Related concepts

Practice in interviews

Further reading

  • Hamada, The Effect of the Firm's Capital Structure on the Systematic Risk of Common Stocks (1972)
  • Koller, Goedhart & Wessels, Valuation (Ch. 15)
  • Damodaran, Investment Valuation (Ch. 8)
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