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Counterparty Risk and CVA

A derivative isn't just exposed to the market — it's exposed to whoever is on the other side of the trade, and CVA is the price tag for the chance that counterparty doesn't pay.

Prerequisites: Credit Default Swaps, Probability of Default and Loss Given Default

An interest-rate swap has zero value at inception, but it isn't risk-free — if it moves in your favor and your counterparty then goes bankrupt, you can lose the gain you were owed. That risk — that the other side of a derivative fails to pay — is counterparty credit risk, and its price tag is the credit valuation adjustment (CVA): how much a bank shaves off a trade's value to account for the chance the counterparty defaults while still owing money.

CVA is the market value of counterparty default risk. It only bites on the portion of a trade where the counterparty owes you money — a derivative you owe money on doesn't need CVA protection against your own counterparty defaulting, since their default doesn't stop you having to pay.

What actually gets priced

CVA depends on three things multiplied together at each point in time: how much you'd lose if the counterparty defaulted right then (exposure), how likely the counterparty is to default around that time, and how much of the loss you'd actually recover.

CVAtEE(t)×PD(t)×(1Recovery)\text{CVA} \approx \sum_t \text{EE}(t) \times \text{PD}(t) \times (1 - \text{Recovery})

In words: at each future date tt, take the expected positive exposure — how much you're owed on average, but only counting scenarios where you're owed anything at all — multiply by the probability of default around that date, multiply by the fraction you wouldn't get back, and add it all up across the life of the trade.

The exposure term is the subtle part. A swap's value swings both positive and negative as rates move, so exposure is not the swap's current mark — it's the expected value of only the upside scenarios, since a downside scenario (you owe them) creates no loss if they default.

Worked example

A bank has a 5-year swap with a hedge fund counterparty. Modeling shows an average expected positive exposure of $4 million over the life of the trade, the counterparty's default probability over that period is 3%, and recovery on unsecured claims in default is typically 40%.

  1. Loss given default. 10.40=0.601 - 0.40 = 0.60, so 60 cents on the dollar is lost if default happens.
  2. CVA. $4,000,000 multiplied by 0.03×0.60=0.0180.03 \times 0.60 = 0.018 gives $72,000.
  3. Interpretation. The bank should book this swap roughly $72,000 cheaper than its "clean" market value, purely to reflect that the hedge fund might not pay if it's ever in the money to the bank.
time to maturity expected positive exposure shaded area × PD × (1 − recovery) = CVA
Exposure typically rises then tapers toward maturity; CVA charges for default risk over exactly that shape, not the trade's current mark.

What this means in practice

Banks add CVA desks precisely because this charge moves independently of the underlying trade — a swap can sit flat while CVA swings hard just because the counterparty's credit spread widened. That's why CVA is hedged separately, often with CDS on the counterparty itself, and why post-2008 capital rules (CVA capital charges under Basel III) made this desk's risk management a regulatory requirement, not just good practice.

CVA is not the same as counterparty default probability, and it is not symmetric with what the counterparty charges you. Your CVA depends on exposure to them; their charge on the same trade (their DVA, or "debit valuation adjustment") depends on exposure to you. The two numbers are calculated from the same trade but are rarely mirror images of each other.

Related concepts

Practice in interviews

Further reading

  • Gregory, Counterparty Credit Risk and CVA (ch. 1-3)
  • Green, XVA: Credit, Funding and Capital Valuation Adjustment
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